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> [!theorem] Theorem. ([[convolution as regularization]])
> 1. *(on the circle - Math 396)* The [[convolution]] $f * g$ of [[Riemann integral|Riemann integrable]] functions $f,g$ [[function on the (unit) circle|on the circle]] is [[continuous]] [[function on the (unit) circle|on the circle]].
>
> 2. *(on $\mathbb{R}^{n}$)* The convolution of $f \in L^{p}(\mathbb{R}^{n})$, $1 \leq p \leq \infty$, and $g \in C_{c}^{0}(\mathbb{R}^{n})$ satisfies $f * g \in C^{0}(\mathbb{R}^{n})$. In fact, $f * g$ is [[uniformly continuous]] ([[continuous iff uniformly continuous on compact spaces|owing to]] $g$ being UC).
> 3. *(on $\mathbb{R}^{n}$ - transferring derivative onto the more regular argument)* If $g \in C^{k}_{c}(\mathbb{R}^{n})$, then $f * g \in C^{k}(\mathbb{R}^{n})$ with $\partial_{}^{\alpha} |_{x} (f * g) = f * \partial_{}^{\alpha}|_{x} g$
> for $\alpha$ a [[derivative|multiindex]],$|\alpha|=k$. ("Put the derivatives onto the argument that's more regular.")
>
> 4. *(on $\mathbb{R}^{n}$ - weakly transferring derivative onto the less regular argument)* [[Sobolev space|If]] in fact $f \in W^{k,p}(\mathbb{R}^{n})$ for some $k \geq 0$, $1 \leq p < \infty$, and $g \in C_{c}^{k}(\mathbb{R}^{n})$, then in fact $\partial_{}^{\alpha}(f * g)=\partial_{}^{\alpha}f * g \text{ for any } |\alpha| \leq k,$
> where the [[derivative]] $\partial_{}^{\alpha }f$ is understood [[weak derivative|weakly]] as necessary. Thus, $f * g \in C^{k}(\mathbb{R}^{n}) \cap W^{k,p}(\mathbb{R}^{n})$.[^1]
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>
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>5. *(summing supports)* $\operatorname{supp}(f * g) \subset \overline{ \operatorname{supp}(f) + \operatorname{supp}(g)}$.
*4 was skipped in lecture but done here*
[^1]: $f * g \in C^{k}(\mathbb{R}^{n})$ by $(3)$. $f * g \in W^{k,p}(\mathbb{R}^{n})$ by $(4)$ together with [[Young's convolution inequality]] ($q=1, r=p$): for any $|\alpha| \leq k$, $\|\partial_{}^{\alpha} (f * g)\|_{L^{p}(\mathbb{R}^{n})} \leq \|\partial_{}^{\alpha} f\|_{L^{p}(\mathbb{R}^{n})} \|g\|_{L^{1}(\mathbb{R}^{n})}<\infty.$
> [!proof]- Proof of **1**. (Convolution on the circle creates continuous functions)
> **Step 1.** We will prove the claim in the [[continuous]] case. Suppose $g$ is [[continuous]]; hence [[uniformly continuous]]. If $f=0$ [[almost-everywhere]] then $(f *g)(x)=0$ for all $x$ and thus $(f * g)$ is [[continuous]]; so suppose this is not the case. Define $c:=\frac{1}{2\pi} \int_{-\pi}^{\pi} |f(y)| \,dy>0$, fix $\varepsilon>0$, and let $\varepsilon'=\frac{\varepsilon}{c}>0$. Then by $g